Mar 11, 2013 #1 H Hulu New member Mar 8, 2013 0 0 0 Explain the how nobles at the end of the 1700’s could own land but hold no real power. ?
Jun 23, 2013 #2 N nelson Member Jul 22, 2008 63 0 6 In fact they DID hold real power because at that time there were property qualifications for the right to vote, and most nobles held property.
In fact they DID hold real power because at that time there were property qualifications for the right to vote, and most nobles held property.