...questioning the validity of their faith? I say my question is to both these types of people because those that are serious about their walk with Christ will likely have come to an answer and those that are still questioning the validity of their faith in Christ probably want to know the answer if they haven't yet come to this question because of the numerous claims of hypocrisy in the Christian Bible that no one can really pinpoint.
And the pinpoints that they attempt to use are usually answered in Bible itself either elsewhere or there was an obvious error in their logic when they arrived at the conclusion that it was a hypocrisy. The errors in their logic, from my experience, usually come from an unwillingness to be open-minded to the potential reasons and that sometimes the reasons aren't good enough for them, however, if one is open-minded about them, they would see their potential validity as the answer.
Anyhow, to my question.
Why did God foresee the need to design this system of Jewish law for the chosen people to follow, and for anyone who wanted to follow God, they'd of course have to be adopted as an alien into the Jewish culture, which means that the law was, at that time, the path to salvation. I understand the law was not the path to perfect salvation, but following it as God instructed was the means by which we were all saved from the lake of fire until the time of Christ's death, where we could be saved by His blood.
My question is why did God design that system only later to change the system to the one we have now, the one where we no longer follow the law as spoken of by Moses, but instead we follow God in a new spiritual way rather than the law. Back then it was eye for an eye and God's people, at His command through His prophet's words, fought wars and took lands from other people in the land of milk and honey.
However, today, and ever since Christ, it has been different. It is no longer eye for an eye, but turn the other cheek. God, now, would never command that we go and take land from another. In fact, God would never even command us today and since he died and rose again to ever coalesce into a kingdom with it's own land and people.
It seems very much like two sides of a coin. In the past, before Christ's death and resurrection, in many respects, it's very much the opposite of what it is now.
Why did God foresee the need to design this system only to change it later?
God does not change, He is the same since the beginning. So why this sharp contrast? To an Atheist, it's almost like people made a mistake in their past religion only to one day realize the error of it, perhaps thought of by Christ, written somewhere by His disciples, and the ideals integrated into the system later on by Rome.
How did a never changing God foresee this need, or more accurately, what was the need?
And the pinpoints that they attempt to use are usually answered in Bible itself either elsewhere or there was an obvious error in their logic when they arrived at the conclusion that it was a hypocrisy. The errors in their logic, from my experience, usually come from an unwillingness to be open-minded to the potential reasons and that sometimes the reasons aren't good enough for them, however, if one is open-minded about them, they would see their potential validity as the answer.
Anyhow, to my question.
Why did God foresee the need to design this system of Jewish law for the chosen people to follow, and for anyone who wanted to follow God, they'd of course have to be adopted as an alien into the Jewish culture, which means that the law was, at that time, the path to salvation. I understand the law was not the path to perfect salvation, but following it as God instructed was the means by which we were all saved from the lake of fire until the time of Christ's death, where we could be saved by His blood.
My question is why did God design that system only later to change the system to the one we have now, the one where we no longer follow the law as spoken of by Moses, but instead we follow God in a new spiritual way rather than the law. Back then it was eye for an eye and God's people, at His command through His prophet's words, fought wars and took lands from other people in the land of milk and honey.
However, today, and ever since Christ, it has been different. It is no longer eye for an eye, but turn the other cheek. God, now, would never command that we go and take land from another. In fact, God would never even command us today and since he died and rose again to ever coalesce into a kingdom with it's own land and people.
It seems very much like two sides of a coin. In the past, before Christ's death and resurrection, in many respects, it's very much the opposite of what it is now.
Why did God foresee the need to design this system only to change it later?
God does not change, He is the same since the beginning. So why this sharp contrast? To an Atheist, it's almost like people made a mistake in their past religion only to one day realize the error of it, perhaps thought of by Christ, written somewhere by His disciples, and the ideals integrated into the system later on by Rome.
How did a never changing God foresee this need, or more accurately, what was the need?