house?Is it binding? The house is in Europe and my husband hasn't helped me pay for it.It's on my name only,but since we were married he had to sign too.I can't afford it much longer, and he has agreed to sign a note that I can represent him when selling it.But it wants "his share" or he won't sign anything.If he wants "his share" of the house, why didn't I get my share of the cars he has bought and sold,one of them even on my name too.Does the judge really have time to sort out who borrowed from who during the marriage?