Sep 17, 2008 #1 D DaveC Member Jun 4, 2008 63 0 6 please state the solution and explanation thank you in advance!
Sep 17, 2008 #2 M Morningfoxnorth New member Jun 7, 2008 15 0 1 As x goes to infinity, cos(x) goes back and forth between +1 and -1. This includes the value cos(x) = 0. Therefore, 1/cos(x) cycles back and forth from +1 to + infinity, then -infinity to -1 back to -infinity, then +infinity to +1, then repeats. There is no limit.
As x goes to infinity, cos(x) goes back and forth between +1 and -1. This includes the value cos(x) = 0. Therefore, 1/cos(x) cycles back and forth from +1 to + infinity, then -infinity to -1 back to -infinity, then +infinity to +1, then repeats. There is no limit.