May 1, 2011 #1 P Patrick Member May 14, 2008 528 0 16 If God has revelation to man. Why do we have many interpretation of God and not the same. For atheist who would answer, you should first prove the non existence of God in a philosophical manner and logical.
If God has revelation to man. Why do we have many interpretation of God and not the same. For atheist who would answer, you should first prove the non existence of God in a philosophical manner and logical.