So it seems obvious that Europe (and probably the world) was a much "freer" place in the late 1800s and 1900s than back in the 16 and 1700s, or rather the says of serfdom and absolutist kings and rulers. However, what are some general arguments that could be made to say that it was freer BEFORE liberation came to countries?

If the discussion centered on the french revolution in particular, then I feel it would be easy to say that things were freer, or at least not any worse off, before Robespierre started killing everyone who didn't follow his strict guidelines for enlightenment and still practiced religion. But the time in question is the late 1600s, a good century before the french revolution.

Just trying to get some ideas here...I am at a loss as to how to defend this!


Thanks!