jevex7

Is there not a difference in nature between a male who is just super-sexual (horny), and a male who can be romantically and sexually attracted to another male? Are these not completely different dispositions? I've known many males who were sexually involved with others of the same sex, but not at all attracted to them such as their natural attraction for a woman. They think it repulsive for two males to be 'in love.' Some so-called homosexuals do have a choice. These males can choose what to focus their attraction on because they have natural moral impulses that overpower their 'unnatural' sexual urges. It is a 'natural' urge for a male to sexually come together with a woman as to procreate. How could it be argued that its a 'natural' urge for him to come together with another man? Can we not say that there is a difference between a gay man who has a genetic disposition toward femininity, and a so-called gay man who is just very sexual? Should we not bring to light this concept of 'two kinds of gay' as to avoid teaching our children that it is natural to be attracted to the same sex ? Is this not just an attempt to justify on moral grounds homosexuality? That's where the misconception is. The idea that homosexual urges are natural in "all" those who have them may not be the case. The argument is valid and objectively oblivious of morality.